VALID CSC2 EXAM CAMP PDF | CSC2 100% EXAM COVERAGE

Valid CSC2 Exam Camp Pdf | CSC2 100% Exam Coverage

Valid CSC2 Exam Camp Pdf | CSC2 100% Exam Coverage

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CSI Canadian Securities Course Exam2 Sample Questions (Q43-Q48):

NEW QUESTION # 43
The following financial information is available for fund SKE:

What is SKE fund's net asset value per share?

  • A. $11, 90
  • B. $9,90
  • C. $12,00
  • D. $10, 00

Answer: A

Explanation:
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Explanation of Answer Options:
* Option A ($9.90): Incorrect; this value does not reflect the subtraction of liabilities.
* Option B ($11.90): Correct; it accounts for the subtraction of liabilities and proper division by outstanding units.
* Option C ($12.00): Incorrect; it represents the market value of assets per unit without deducting liabilities.
* Option D ($10.00): Incorrect; this value does not align with the given data or calculations.
References to Canadian Securities Course Exam 2 Study Materials:
* Volume 2, Chapter 17- Mutual Funds: Structure and Regulation, Pricing Mutual Fund Units:
* Discusses the formula for calculating NAV per share, including the treatment of liabilities and market value of assets.
* Volume 2, Chapter 22- Other Managed Products:
* Covers the concept of valuation for managed funds and its importance for accurate pricing.
* Volume 1, Chapter 11- Corporations and Their Financial Statements:
* Provides foundational knowledge about book and market values used in calculations.


NEW QUESTION # 44
For institutional trading, when does the investor need to provide trade-matching elements?

  • A. After the dealer issues a trade execution notice.
  • B. One the custodian confirms the trade.
  • C. With the initial order.
  • D. Once the trade clears.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Trade-matching is a critical process in institutional trading, ensuring that details of a trade (e.g., price, quantity, and settlement terms) align among the involved parties, including the investor, dealer, and custodian.
In copyright, institutional trade matching must occur within a specific timeline, and the investor is responsible for providing trade-matching elementsafter the trade execution notice is issued by the dealer.
Step-by-Step Explanation:
* What is Trade Matching?Trade matching involves the comparison of trade details between the buyer and seller (and their intermediaries) to confirm accuracy and reduce settlement risks.
* When Does the Investor Provide Trade-Matching Elements?
* After the dealer executes the trade, the dealer issues atrade execution noticeto the investor.
* The investor must then provide the necessary trade-matching details, such as account information, settlement instructions, and any other required confirmations.
* This process ensures that the trade can move seamlessly through to settlement.
* Why Not Other Options?
* Option B (Once the custodian confirms the trade):Incorrect. The custodian's role is typically involved in the final settlement process and not in providing trade-matching details.
* Option C (With the initial order):Incorrect. Trade-matching details are provided after the trade is executed, not at the time the order is placed.
* Option D (Once the trade clears):Incorrect. Trade matching occurs before the trade clears to ensure settlement.
References to Canadian Securities Course Exam 2 Study Materials:
* Volume 2, Chapter 27 - Institutional Clearing and Settlement
* Highlights the process of institutional trade matching, the roles of the investor, dealer, and custodian, and the required timelines.
* Volume 2, Chapter 27 - The Sell Side and the Buy Side of the Market
* Explains trade execution and the responsibilities of institutional clients and their intermediaries in completing trades.
Final answer:
* Option A (After the dealer issues a trade execution notice): Correct.
* Other options are incorrectbased on the standard processes for institutional trade matching in copyright.


NEW QUESTION # 45
What financial instrument is derived from the value of an underlying asset?

  • A. Real estate investment trust
  • B. Inflation linked bond
  • C. Forward contract
  • D. Preferred share.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Aforward contractis a derivative instrument whose value is derived from the value of an underlying asset, such as commodities, currencies, or financial instruments. It is a customized agreement between two parties to buy or sell an asset at a future date at a specified price.
* A. Real estate investment trust: A REIT is an equity instrument tied to real estate assets, not a derivative.
* C. Preferred share: A preferred share is an equity security with fixed dividends, not a derivative.
* D. Inflation-linked bond: These are fixed-income securities linked to inflation rates but are not considered derivatives.


NEW QUESTION # 46
What is the main benefit of investing in preferred shares?

  • A. Guaranteed dividend payment.
  • B. Higher potential for capital appreciation than common shares.
  • C. Priority to claim assets ahead of debt holders.
  • D. Priority to receive fixed dividends ahead of common shareholders.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Preferred shares provide investors withpriority to receive fixed dividends ahead of common shareholders.
This fixed income feature makes preferred shares similar to debt instruments but with characteristics of equity. While preferred shareholders have no guaranteed dividend payment (subject to the company's discretion and profitability), they are entitled to receive dividends before any distribution to common shareholders.
Preferred shares do not have a higher potential for capital appreciation compared to common shares, as they are typically designed for income rather than growth. Additionally, preferred shareholders have a lower claim on assets compared to debt holders.


NEW QUESTION # 47
What do the returns on treasury bills often represent?

  • A. Federal funds rate
  • B. Risk-free rate
  • C. Inflation rate
  • D. Bank prime rate.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Detailed Explanation:Treasury bills (T-bills) are short-term government debt instruments with minimal risk of default. Their returns are often used as a proxy for therisk-free ratein financial analysis, as they represent the theoretical return on an investment with zero credit risk. The risk-free rate is critical for discounting cash flows and comparing returns on various investments.
Other options:
* A. Bank prime rateis the interest rate commercial banks charge their most creditworthy customers.
* B. Inflation rateis unrelated to the direct return on T-bills, though it impacts real returns.
* D. Federal funds rateapplies in the U.S. to interbank lending, not directly to T-bills.
* CSC Volume 1 (2023 Edition): Chapter on the financial markets, inflation, and trade settlement.
* CSC Volume 2 (2024 Edition): Sections on portfolio analysis and risk-free securities.
References:


NEW QUESTION # 48
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